Newest ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Questions: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management supply you high-quality Preparation Dump - VCEPrep
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q16-Q21):
NEW QUESTION # 16
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.
NEW QUESTION # 17
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization is aiming to achieve capability level 3 for the deployment management practice. What is an indication of the achievement of capability level 3?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization's value streams.
Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities): Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.
Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows): Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4's capability framework.
Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice): Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.
Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented): Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.
NEW QUESTION # 18
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
An organization is facing errors and delays when deploying software. An investigation has shown that these are often caused by the need for unplanned manual configuration of the target environments. What is the BEST recommendation for the organization to improve the success rate of deployments?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The issue of errors and delays due to unplanned manual configuration of target environments points to inconsistent or poorly managed environments. ITIL 4 recommends leveraging Infrastructure as Code (IaC) (Option A) to address this, as IaC automates and standardizes environment provisioning, ensuring consistency and reducing manual errors.
Option A (Leverage Infrastructure as Code): Correct, as IaC (e.g., using tools like Terraform or Ansible) defines environments in code, enabling repeatable, error-free setups and directly addressing the problem of manual configuration errors.
Option B (Use incremental deployments): Incorrect, as incremental deployments focus on releasing smaller changes but do not address the root cause of environment configuration issues.
Option C (Integrate build, test, and deployment activities): Incorrect, as while integration improves pipeline flow, it does not specifically resolve manual configuration errors in target environments.
Option D (Automate the CI/CD pipeline): Incorrect, as automating the pipeline is a broader solution that may include IaC, but it is not specific enough to address the environment configuration issue directly.
NEW QUESTION # 19
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.
NEW QUESTION # 20
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization has an objective to create and use deployment approaches that would fit the needs of the organization and the context. How should the organization assess if this objective is achieved?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4 emphasizes stakeholder satisfaction as a key indicator of whether a practice meets organizational needs and context, as it reflects the value delivered to users and the business. Option B, asking stakeholders about their satisfaction with deployment lead times, directly assesses whether deployment approaches are effective and aligned with expectations, making it the best method to evaluate the objective.
Option A (By looking at the deployment backlog throughput): Incorrect, as throughput measures efficiency but does not directly indicate whether the deployment approach fits the organization's needs or context.
Option B (By asking stakeholders about their satisfaction with deployment lead times): Correct, as stakeholder feedback on lead times reflects whether deployments are timely and valuable, aligning with ITIL 4's focus on value co-creation.
Option C (By measuring the percentage of deployments which did not follow the agreed policies and models): Incorrect, as non-compliance indicates process issues but does not directly assess fit with organizational needs or stakeholder satisfaction.
Option D (By analyzing the adherence to deployment schedules): Incorrect, as schedule adherence measures operational performance, not whether the approach meets broader contextual needs.
NEW QUESTION # 21
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